Chapter 1
Basic Mycology MCQs
MCQ 1: The causative agent for the ringworm is
A. Epidermatophyton
B. Tinea nigra
C. Mycetoma
D. Histoplasma
MCQ 2: Cryptococcal meningitis is caused by
A. Cryptococcus
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Diplococcus
D. Dimorphs
MCQ 3: C. immitis is a dimorphic fungus i.e. it can exist as molds in soil and spherule in tissues hence termed
as
A. Diploid
B. Diplococcus
C. Dimorphic
D. Polymorphic
MCQ 4: A genus named as coccidioides immitis responsible in causing a disease called
A. Coccidioidomycosis
B. histoplasmosis
C. candidiasis
D. aspergillosis
MCQ 5: Caspofungin is a drug that inhibits the synthesis of
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
B. D-Glucan
C. Ergosterol
D. Mitotic spindle
MCQ 6: Dermatophytosis is commonly known as
A. Nails infection
B. Skin rash
C. Ringworm
D. Skin infection
MCQ 7: Histoplasma is transmitted in the form of
A. Microconidia
B. Yeast
C. Conidia
D. Arthrospores
MCQ 8: Sporothrix is a genus that causes a condition in a human named as
A. Tinea versicolor
B. Mycetoma
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Blastomycosis
MCQ 9: The habitat for the aspergillus across the world is
A. Water
B. Soil
C. Mud
D. Streams
MCQ 10: Tinea pedis is the scientific name of a foot disease that is commonly called
A. Athlete s foot
B. Ringworm
C. Skin rash
D. Skin infection
MCQ 11: The natural habitat for the Paracoccidioides brasiliensis is
A. Soil
B. Water
C. Mud
D. Skin
MCQ 12: Flucytosine is a drug that inhibits the DNA synthesis and its side effect is
A. Liver toxicity
B. Stomach toxicity
C. Bone marrow toxicity
D. Renal toxicity
MCQ 13: The diameter of candida is nearly
A. 2 µm
B. 4 µm
C. 6 µm
D. 6.4 µm
MCQ 14: A fungus that causes a tuberculosis type disease in AIDS patients is named as
A. Penicillium marneffei
B. Penicillium notatum
C. Penicillium G
D. Aspergillus
MCQ 15: Fungi are categorized into two types that is yeasts and
A. Bugs
B. Ticks
C. Molds
D. Algae
MCQ 16: Histoplasmosis is caused by the genus
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Coccidioide immitis
C. Candida
D. Aspergillus
MCQ 17: The fungal cell membrane in contrast to the human cell membrane is composed of
A. Sterol
B. Cholesterol
C. Egrosterol
D. Lipids
MCQ 18: The infection of the keratinized layer of the skin is called
A. Tinea versicolor
B. Tinea nigra
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Chromomycosis
MCQ 19: Internal organs of the body are known as
A. Cutaneous structures
B. Subcutaneous structures
C. Systemic structures
D. Opportunistic
MCQ 20: Coccidioidomycosis is also called as
A. Death fever
B. Valley fever
C. Chache fever
D. Black fever
MCQ 21: Tinea nigra is treated with
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Salicylic acid
D. Alcohol
MCQ 22: Rhizopus is a causative agent for the
A. Mucormycosis
B. Candidiasis
C. Aspergillosis
D. Histoplasmosis
MCQ 23: immune response to fungal infections is the formation of
A. Granulomas
B. Granules
C. Spores
D. Conidia
MCQ 24: The drug that disrupts the mitotic spindle by binding to tubulin and liver toxicity is its side effect is
named as
A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Terbinafine
D. Azoles
MCQ 25: The hair nails and dead skin of epidermis are collectively named as
A. Cutaneous structures
B. Subcutaneous structures
C. Systemic structures
D. Opportunistic
MCQ 26: The host for the Penicillium marneffe is
A. bugs
B. bamboo rats
C. wild rats
D. cats
MCQ 27: What is the portal of entry for Histoplasma?
A. skin
B. water
C. Inhalation into lungs
D. food
MCQ 28: The cell wall of the fungi is made up of
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Murine
C. Chitin
D. Cellulose
MCQ 29: What is true about fungi?
A. Eukaryotic organisms
B. Prokaryotic organism
C. Unicellular
D. Algae
MCQ 30: The drug that binds with the Ergosterol in the cell membrane of the fungi and disrupts its function is
A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Tolnoflate
D. Nystatin
MCQ 31: A dermal infection especially caused by the dermophytes is called
A. Skin infection
B. Dermatophytoses
C. Dermal infection
D. Fungal infection
MCQ 32: The fungi that can grow either as mycelium or as yeast on temperature variation termed as
A. Thermally active
B. Heat sensitive
C. Thermally dimorphic
D. Thermal variation
MCQ 33: Cryptococcus is transmitted in the form of
A. Spores
B. Yeast
C. Conidia
D. Hyphae
MCQ 34: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis is the causative agent for
A. Coccidioidomycosis
B. South American blastomycosis
C. Candidiasis
D. Aspergillus
MCQ 35: Fungal cell wall along with chitin also composed of beta-glucan a long polymer of
A. G-Glucose
B. D-Glucose
C. Polysaccharides
D. Monomers
MCQ 36: A network of fine white filaments in the vegetative part of the fungus is called
A. Septa
B. Hyphae
C. Mycelium
D. Conidia
MCQ 37: In fungi, a part of the normal flora of human is named as
A. Candida
B. Cryptococcus
C. Histoplasma
D. Coccidioides
MCQ 38: The study of fungi is called
A. Virology
B. Mycology
C. Parasitology
D. Immunology
MCQ 39: The causative agent for the Tinea nigra is
A. Cladosporium werneckii
B. Malassezia furfur
C. Mycetoma
D. Histoplasma
Chapter 2
Classification of Medically important Bacteria MCQs
MCQ 1: The other name for pertussis is
A. Cough
B. Cold cough
C. Whooping cough
D. Fever
MCQ 2: Absence of skin and other organs is a disease caused by
A. Streptococcus
B. Monococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Diplococcus
MCQ 3: Anthrax is caused by the gram-positive rod named as
A. Bacillus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Bacillus sabtlis
D. Bacillus cereus
MCQ 4: Klebsilla E.coli Enterobacters and pseudomonas are causative agents for
A. Cancer
B. Urinary tract infections
C. Anthrax
D. Peritonitis
MCQ 5: Meningitis is a disease of the brain which is caused by
A. Haemophilus influenza
B. Neisseria meningitides
C. Meningococcus
D. all of above
MCQ 6: A wall-less aerobic and fried egg-shaped bacteria cause pneumonia named as
A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycoplasma
C. Clostridium sordellii
D. Treponema
MCQ 7: Botulinum toxin produces in wounds and food causing a disease named as botulism that is produced
by
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium sordellii
D. Clostridium tetani
MCQ 8: Urethritis is caused by
A. Mycobacterium
B. Vibrio
C. Proteus
D. Chlamydia
MCQ 9: Syphilis is caused by
A. Borrelia
B. Treponema
C. Leptosira
D. Mycolasma
MCQ 10: Pneumonia is caused by
A. Legionella pneumophila only
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae only
C. none of others
D. Legionella pneumophila and Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
MCQ 11: The main reservoir for the bacteria Campylobacter is
A. Human
B. Pigs
C. Poultry
D. Goats
MCQ 12: Plague is caused mostly by
A. Yersinia specie
B. Serratia specie
C. Brucella specie
D. Shigella specie
MCQ 13: Borrelia is the causative agent for
A. Pneumonia
B. Whooping cough
C. Lymph disease
D. Alopecia
MCQ 14: Corynebacterium is no-spore forming rod that causes
A. Diphtheria
B. Pneumonia
C. Syphilis
D. Urinary tract infection
Chapter 3
Classification of Viruses MCQs
MCQ 1: The diameter of hepadnavirus is
A. 75 nm
B. 42 nm
C. 55 nm
D. 23 nm
MCQ 2: In Rhabdoviruses the term rhabdo refers to as
A. Bread shaped
B. Bullet shaped
C. Brick shaped
D. Bead shaped
MCQ 3: The myxo used in the name of Orthomyxoviruses refers to the affinity of virus towards
A. Mucins
B. Mucans
C. Mutation
D. Mixed phenotype
MCQ 4: Severe acute respiratory syndrome in human is caused by
A. Arenavirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Rhabdoviruses
MCQ 5: In the family coronavirus, the word corona refers to
A. Thread
B. Whip
C. Prominent halo of spikes
D. Tail
MCQ 6: What size reoviruses does have?
A. 75 nm
B. 34 nm
C. 22 nm
D. 45 nm
MCQ 7: What is the size of adenovirus is
A. 75 nm
B. 55 nm
C. 40 nm
D. 22 nm
MCQ 8: What is the estimated diameter of Caliciviruses?
A. 38 nm
B. 75 nm
C. 22 nm
D. 45 nm
MCQ 9: The symmetry of arenavirus is
A. Spiral
B. Icosahedral
C. Helical
D. Round
MCQ 10: In the family of Rhabdoviruses, the only human pathogens are
A. Rotavirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Measles virus
MCQ 11: Dengue virus is the member of a family called
A. Parvovirus
B. Flaviviruses
C. Picornavirus
D. hepadnavirus
MCQ 12: The small naked single-stranded linear DNA virus having 22 nm size is called
A. Papovavirus
B. Poxvirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Adenovirus
MCQ 13: Human Immunodeficiency Virus belongs to a family called
A. Orthomyxoviruses
B. Retrovirus
C. Reovirus
D. Arenavirus
MCQ 14: Measles and mumps virus belongs to a family called
A. Orthomyxoviruses
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Filovirus
D. Arenavirus
MCQ 15: The member of a family Reoviruses that causes diarrhea in infants is called
A. Congovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Picornavirus
D. hepadnavirus
MCQ 16: The naked viruses with icosahedral symmetry having double-stranded supercoiled DNA are known as
A. Papovavirus
B. Poxvirus
C. Parvovirus
D. Adenovirus
MCQ 17: The human pathogen of family togaviruses is
A. Rotavirus
B. Rubella virus
C. Poliovirus
D. Papilloma virus
MCQ 18: The word filo used in the name of family filoviruses resembles with
A. Thread
B. Whip
C. Round
D. Wrinkle
MCQ 19: What is the approximate size of the parvovirus?
A. 23 nm
B. 21 nm
C. 22 nm
D. 20 nm
MCQ 20: What type of shape Filoviruses have?
A. Constant shape
B. Discrete shape
C. Pleomorphic
D. Polymorphic
MCQ 21: The diameter of herpesviruses is
A. 75 nm
B. 100 nm
C. 55 nm
D. 23 nm
MCQ 22: Hepatitis B virus is a member of a family
A. adenovirus
B. papillomavirus
C. parvovirus
D. hepadnavirus
MCQ 23: Poxviruses have
A. Fried egg like shape
B. Brick like shape
C. Grapes like shape
D. Beads shaped
MCQ 24: What is the approximate size of the togaviruses?
A. 60 nm
B. 55 nm
C. 45 nm
D. 54 nm
MCQ 25: Rhabdoviruses are also named as
A. Rotavirus
B. Measles virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Rabies virus
MCQ 26: A human pathogen called Hantavirus belongs to a family
A. Bunyaviruses
B. Coronavirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Rhabdoviruses
MCQ 27: Parvovirus papovavirus and adenovirus are three
A. Enveloped
B. Naked
C. Coated
D. Capsid
MCQ 28: The human pathogens of the family of togaviruses include alphavirus and
A. Congovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Rubivirus
D. Adenovirus
MCQ 29: The smallest RNA virus with a diameter 28 nm is called
A. Parvovirus
B. Papovavirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Reovirus
MCQ 30: The size of papovavirus is
A. 22 nm
B. 56 nm
C. 55 nm
D. 40nm
MCQ 31: The size of Orthomyxoviruses ranges from
A. 20-110 nm
B. 80-120 nm
C. 40-560 nm
D. 120-340 nm
MCQ 32: The size of the delta virus is
A. 37 nm
B. 67 nm
C. 45 nm
D. 69 nm
MCQ 33: The diameter of arenavirus ranges from 80 nm to
A. 120 nm
B. 130 nm
C. 150 nm
D. 160 nm
MCQ 34: The human pathogen of a family arenavirus is
A. Rabies virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Lassa virus
D. Hepatitis delta virus
MCQ 35: Herpesvirus is noted in causing
A. Latent infection
B. Cancer
C. Scrapie
D. Scratches
Chapter 4
Clinical Virology MCQs
MCQ 1: The study of cancer is known as
A. Microbiology
B. Oncology
C. Pathology
D. Physiology
MCQ 2: The virion lacks
A. Ligase
B. Polymerase
C. Transferase
D. Protease
MCQ 3: A protein containing partial with no detachable nucleic acid are known as
A. Virion
B. Prions
C. Viroid
D. Proteins
MCQ 4: Viral gastroenteritis in young children is caused by
A. Echovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Coxsackie virus
D. Rhinovirus
MCQ 5: The alternative name for the hepatocellular carcinoma is
A. Hepatocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Hepatoma
D. Leukocytes
MCQ 6: In the name of the family Reovirus the word, reo refer to
A. Respiratory enteric orphans
B. Respiratory
C. Orphans
D. Enteric
MCQ 7: The pol gene is involved in the integration of viral DNA into the host cell with the help of an enzyme
called
A. Protease
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. Integrase
D. Ligase
MCQ 8: Arthritis is a disease of
A. Joints
B. Hairs
C. Eyes
D. Nose
MCQ 9: German measles is caused by
A. Rubella virus
B. Congovirus
C. Rotavirus
D. Coronavirus
MCQ 10: The immune attack against the viral antigens on infected hepatocytes is mediated by
A. Cytotoxic T cell
B. Lymphocytes
C. Erythrocytes
D. Leukocytes
MCQ 11: Human urban yellow fever is transmitted by
A. Mosquito
B. Rats
C. Pigs
D. Monkeys
MCQ 12: Bovine Spongiform encephalopathy is also known as
A. mad dog disease
B. sheep ‘s disease
C. mad cow disease
D. kuru disease
MCQ 13: The virus that is well known in causing the latent infection is called as
A. Adenovirus
B. Herpes virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Influenza virus
MCQ 14: What is the approximate size of the Orthomyxoviruses?
A. 100 nm
B. 110 nm
C. 120 nm
D. 130 nm
MCQ 15: Which is true about Astrovirus?
A. Nonenveloped Ribonucleic acid (RNA) virus
B. Enveloped Ribonucleic acid (RNA) virus
C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) virus
D. Prion
MCQ 16: In children the astrovirus causes
A. Skin infection
B. Watery Diarrhoea
C. Vomiting
D. Brain inflammation
MCQ 17: HDV belongs to the family
A. Piconavirus
B. Hepadnavirus
C. Flavivirus
D. Delta virus
MCQ 18: HSV-1 stands for
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C. Herpes simplex virus type 1
D. Herpesvirus
MCQ 19: Human T-cell lymphotropic virus causes T-cell leukemia in
A. Pigs
B. Goats
C. Humans
D. Monkeys
MCQ 20: Rous sarcoma virus is
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) Tumor virus
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) Tumor virus
C. Enveloped viruses
D. Naked viruses
MCQ 21: The viral gastroenteritis in young children is caused by
A. Reovirus only
B. Rotavirus only
C. Poliovirus
D. Reovirus and Rotavirus
MCQ 22: Croup in young children is caused by
A. Parainfluenza virus
B. Influenza B virus
C. Influenza A virus
D. Herpesvirus
MCQ 23: Papillomavirus are classified based on the DNA restriction fragment
A. Technique
B. Analysis
C. Procedure
D. Methods
MCQ 24: The causative agent for the scrapie in sheep is
A. Virion
B. Prion
C. Viroid
D. Proteins
MCQ 25: Varicella-zoster virus is abbreviated as
A. VZU
B. VVU
C. ZUV
D. ZZV
MCQ 26: In Africa and South America Jungle yellow fever is a disease of
A. Pigs
B. Monkeys
C. Goats
D. Cattles
MCQ 27: A gene that may cause of initiation of cancer growth is known as
A. Hepatitis causing gene
B. Mutated gene
C. Oncogene
D. Carcinogen
MCQ 28: Arbovirus is classified into three main groups namely bunyaviruses togaviruses and
A. Robovirus
B. Echovirus
C. Flaviviruses
D. Rodents virus
MCQ 29: The common cold is caused by the
A. Reovirus
B. Rhabdoviruses
C. Rhinovirus
D. Hepatitis delta virus
MCQ 30: Slapped cheek syndrome is caused by
A. Poliovirus
B. Parvovirus B19
C. Adenovirus
D. Poxvirus
MCQ 31: Ebola virus was identified in
A. 1976
B. 1977
C. 1970
D. 1979
MCQ 32: The recurrent epidemics of the influenza is caused by the
A. Influenza A virus only
B. Influenza B virus only
C. Influenza C virus
D. Influenza A and B virus
MCQ 33: Majority of upper and lower respiratory tract infection is caused by the
A. Hantavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes simplex virus type 1
D. Poliovirus
MCQ 34: Which is true about the Ebola virus?
A. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) enveloped virus
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) Tumor virus
C. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) nonenveloped virus
D. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) envelop virus
MCQ 35: The mode of transmission for the cache valley virus is
A. Ades mosquito
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Culiseta mosquito
D. all of above
MCQ 36: Other than warts some species of the papillomavirus may cause carcinoma of the
A. Lungs
B. Vigina
C. Cervix
D. Urethra
MCQ 37: Faecal-oral and respiratory tract is the mode of transmission for
A. Herpesvirus
B. Congo virus
C. Ebola
D. Adenovirus
MCQ 38: Marburg virus was first identified as a human pathogen in
A. 1960
B. 1967
C. 1968
D. 1987
MCQ 39: The mode of transmission for the dengue is
A. Monkeys
B. Haemagogus mosquito
C. Ades mosquito
D. Pigs
MCQ 40: Retroviruses are also called as
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) Tumor virus
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) Tumor virus
C. Naked Viruses
D. Enveloped viruses
MCQ 41: Norovirus is also known as
A. Rotavirus
B. Poliovirus
C. Norwalk virus
D. Rhabdoviruses
MCQ 42: In the transcription of the RNA genome into DNA, the involved gene is known as
A. Gag gene
B. Pol gene
C. Env gene
D. Tat gene
MCQ 43: A disease muscle twitching and lack of coordination occurs due to a prion known as
A. Marasmus
B. Kuru disease
C. Cancer
D. Tetanus
MCQ 44: Hendra virus is a human pathogen that is identified in
A. 1994
B. 1991
C. 1995
D. 1998
MCQ 45: The leading cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants is
A. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Parvovirus B19
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Influenza virus
MCQ 46: The paramyxovirus is a causative agent for severe bronchiolitis and pneumonia in young children
named as
A. Lassa virus
B. Hantavirus
C. Human Metapmeumovirus
D. Marburg virus
MCQ 47: The word cancer is derived from the Latin word
A. crab
B. cow
C. ticks
D. bees
MCQ 48: The rubella virus causes infection in pregnant women known as
A. Congenital malformation
B. Bone deformities
C. Lungs carcinoma
D. Heart failure
MCQ 49: The kidney carcinoma in frogs is implicated by
A. Herpesvirus
B. Papovavirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Hantavirus
MCQ 50: The way of transmission of an arbovirus is
A. Cattles
B. Monkeys
C. Arthropods
D. Pigs
MCQ 51: Classical dengue is also known as
A. Fever
B. Breakbone fever
C. Death fever
D. Cough
MCQ 52: All herpesviruses have
A. Helical structure
B. Icosahedral core
C. Spiral shape
D. Linear Shape
MCQ 53: Kaposi s sarcoma is an opportunistic infection in AIDS patient and is its causative agent in
A. Human herpesvirus 8
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. JC virus
MCQ 54: A disease in sheep characterized by demyelinating and pneumonia are known as
A. Visna
B. Scrapie
C. Pneumonia
D. Measles
MCQ 55: Mode of transmission for the human papillomavirus is skin as well as a
A. Sexual contact
B. Respiratory tract
C. Nose
D. Eyes
MCQ 56: Cache Valley virus was first time isolated in
A. 1948
B. 1955
C. 1956
D. 1958
MCQ 57: Smallpox virus is also known as
A. varicella-zoster virus
B. Variola virus
C. Ebola
D. Herpesvirus
MCQ 58: A common disease in infants that is characterized by transient rash and high fever is caused by
A. Hendra virus
B. Hantavirus
C. Human herpesvirus 6
D. Herpesvirus
MCQ 59: Conjunctivitis is caused by
A. Coxackivirus
B. Togavirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Hantavirus
MCQ 60: Noroviruses is the causative agent for
A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Measles
MCQ 61: Korean hemorrhagic fever is caused by the
A. Adenovirus
B. Hantavirus
C. Cache valley virus
D. Chikungunya virus
MCQ 62: A disease that is characterized by the ataxia tremors and itching in sheep is known as
A. Visna
B. Scrapie
C. Jackob disease
D. Spongiform
MCQ 63: Hepatic carcinoma is caused by the
A. Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
B. Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
C. Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
D. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
MCQ 64: Rabies is the condition caused by the bite of
A. Flees
B. Ticks
C. Rabid animals
D. Mad cows
MCQ 65: A condition characterized by swelling in the gland is called
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Ulcer
D. Influenza
MCQ 66: The transplacental and respiratory tract is a mode of transmission for
A. Parvovirus B19
B. Poliovirus
C. Adenovirus
D. Hantavirus
MCQ 67: Member of a family flavivirus is
A. Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
B. Hepatitis E Virus (HEV)
C. Hepatitis Delta Virus (HDV)
D. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
MCQ 68: Burkitt s lymphoma in African children is caused by
A. Ebola
B. Congo
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Lassa virus
MCQ 69: The natural host for the respiratory syncytial virus is
A. Pigs
B. Human
C. Goats
D. Rats
MCQ 70: Varicella-zoster virus is transmitted by the
A. Mouth
B. Genital organs
C. Respiratory droplets
D. Aerosol
MCQ 71: CMV is an abbreviation of
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Cauliflower virus
C. Cow virus
D. Influenza virus
MCQ 72: A new group of rodent-borne viruses is named as
A. Arboviruses
B. Roboviruses
C. Rodent virus
D. Rabies virus
MCQ 73: The epidemic encephalitis characterized by headache fever and caused by
A. Human herpesvirus 8
B. Japanese encephalitis virus
C. Marburg virus
D. Lassa virus
MCQ 74: The host for the poliomyelitis is limited to
A. reptiles
B. Aves
C. Primates
D. Amphibians
MCQ 75: The size of togaviruses is
A. 80 nm
B. 70 nm
C. 35 nm
D. 20 nm
MCQ 76: Alphaviruses and Rubi viruses are families of
A. Togaviruses
B. Flaviviruses
C. Bunyaviruses
D. Echovirus
MCQ 77: Norovirus is a common cause of
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Skin rash
C. Bronchitis
D. Mad cow disease
MCQ 78: The genome of the herpesvirus is linear
A. double-stranded Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
C. single-stranded Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
D. single-stranded Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
MCQ 79: HBV belongs to the family
A. Piconavirus
B. Hepdnavirus
C. Flavivirus
D. Delta virus
MCQ 80: The change in the shape growth properties and other features of the tumor cell is called as
A. Benign Tumor
B. Malignant transformation of cell
C. Benign transformation the cell
D. Malignant Tumor
MCQ 81: Papovavirus is the
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) Tumor virus
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) Tumor virus
C. Enveloped viruses
D. Naked viruses
MCQ 82: Echoviruses is similar in structure to
A. Enterovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Hantavirus
D. Herpesvirus
Chapter 5
Drugs and Vaccines MCQs
MCQ 1: The attachment of the erythrocytes to the surface of the virally infected cell is termed as
A. Interference
B. Hemadsorption
C. Neutralization
D. Complement fixation
MCQ 2: A duration of time a specific antibody develops becoming detachable in the blood known as
A. serology
B. blood culture
C. seroconversion
D. antibody production
MCQ 3: Enfuvirtide is an alternative name of
A. Fuzeon
B. Selzentry
C. Acyclovir
D. Vidarabine
MCQ 4: The entry of HIV in the cell is blocked by the
A. Amantadine
B. Ganciclovir
C. Enfuvirtide
D. Maraviroc
MCQ 5: The replication of the influenza A virus is inhibited by
A. Amantadine
B. Ganciclovir
C. Acyclovir
D. Vidarabine
MCQ 6: Ganciclovir has a structure that is similar to
A. Amantadine
B. Acyclovir
C. Selzentry
D. Vidarabine
MCQ 7: An approved drug for hepatitis B in adults known as
A. Entecavir
B. Delavirdine
C. Efavirenz
D. Tenofovir
MCQ 8: The main side effect of the nevirapine is
A. Hepatitis
B. Cancer
C. Skin rash
D. Skin infection
MCQ 9: The main side effect of the drug cidofovir is
A. Retinitis
B. Meningitis
C. Kidney failure
D. Heart failure
MCQ 10: Cidofovir is a nucleoside analog of cytosine lacks
A. Phosphate group
B. Purine
C. Ribose sugar
D. Hydrogen bonds
MCQ 11: The main side effect of the drug dideoxyinosine is
A. Pancreatitis only
B. Peripheral neuropathy only
C. parasymphathetic neuropathy
D. Pancreatitis and Peripheral neuropathy
MCQ 12: Entecavir has no activity against
A. Protease
B. Ligase
C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) polymerase
D. Transferase
MCQ 13: Entecavir is a
A. Guanosine analogue
B. Cytosine analogue
C. Thymine analogue
D. Alanine analogue
MCQ 14: The drug used against chronic active hepatitis is
A. Abacavir
B. Tenofovir
C. Adefovir
D. Efavirenz
MCQ 15: Rescriptor is an alternative name for
A. Abacavir
B. Delavirdine
C. Efavirenz
D. Tenofovir
MCQ 16: What is true about Amantadine?
A. 5 ring compound
B. 3 ring compound
C. 6 ring compound
D. 2 ring compound
MCQ 17: Ziagen is a drug that is also called as
A. Abacavir
B. Tenofovir
C. Delavirdine
D. Efavirenz
MCQ 18: Ganciclovir is an effective treatment against
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Retinitis
C. Bronchitis
D. Cancer
MCQ 19: The main side effect of the drug ganciclovir includes leukopenia and
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Disk slip
C. Lock jaw
D. Gout
MCQ 20: Stavudine is the drug that inhibits the synthesis of
A. Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
C. Proteins
D. Peptides
Chapter 6
Genetics of Bacterial Cells MCQs
MCQ 1: If a base replaces by another base pair sequence the mutation the resulting replacement is known as
A. Alternation
B. Substitution
C. Missense
D. Nonsense
MCQ 2: The process of mating through which two bacterial cells transfer their DNA a cell acts as a host while
other as the recipient the process is known as
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugations
D. Mating
MCQ 3: The bacteria composed single chromosomes having a single copy of the gene known as
A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Polyploidy
D. Monoploid
MCQ 4: The transfer of DNA from one bacterial cell to another is carried out by
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. all of above
MCQ 5: The substitutions that prematurely stops the synthesis of protein by generating the stop codon called
as
A. Missense mutation
B. Nonsense mutation
C. Frameshift mutation
D. Alternation
MCQ 6: What are the approximate numbers of base pairs of bacterial DNA?
A. 5 x 10¹⁰
B. 5 x 10⁶
C. 5 x 10⁸
D. 5 x 10¹¹
MCQ 7: Recipient bacteria in conjugation are usually
A. Female bacterium
B. Male bacterium
C. Bacterium
D. E.Coli
MCQ 8: Pilin is an important protein that forms the conjugation tube during the process of conjugation the
process is named as
A. Tube
B. Pilus
C. Pilin
D. Pilin tube
MCQ 9: During conjugation, the process of mating is controlled by
A. F plasmid
B. Fertility plasmid
C. F factored
D. all of above
MCQ 10: When one or more base pair are deleted or added in the sequence shifts the reading frame on the
ribosome called
A. Substitution mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
MCQ 11: Within the bacterial cells, the transfer of DNA is carried out through
A. Insertion
B. Programmed rearrangements
C. Conjugations
D. Deletions
MCQ 12: A wall-less mycoplasma having the molecular weight approximately
A. 5 x 10⁶
B. 5 x 10¹⁰
C. 5 x 10¹¹
D. 5 x 10⁸
MCQ 13: Transfer of DNA from one cell to another is known as
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugations
D. Mating
MCQ 14: The transfer of DNA mediated by bacteriophage is called as
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugations
D. Mating
MCQ 15: A minor change in the sequence of base pairs is called
A. Alternation
B. Defects
C. Mutations
D. Deletions
MCQ 16: The genetic material of the bacteria is composed of a single-stranded
A. Linear Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
B. Ladder like Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
C. Coiled Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
D. Circular Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
Chapter 7
Genetics of Viruses MCQs
MCQ 1: The integration of viral DNA into the cell DNA results in a structure named as
A. Viral genome
B. Prophage
C. Virion
D. Prion
MCQ 2: The segment of RNA that have both negative and positive polarity regions is known as
A. Neutral
B. Dipolar
C. Monopolar
D. Ambisense
MCQ 3: The mutations that are valuable in determining the function of the viral gene is called
A. Substitution
B. Frameshift mutation
C. Conditional lethal mutation
D. Point mutation
MCQ 4: All the RNA viruses contain single-stranded RNA except
A. Reovirus
B. Retrovirus
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
MCQ 5: Between two chromosomes the exchange of gene is called as
A. Interaction
B. Mutation
C. Recombination
D. Point mutation
MCQ 6: If a cell is infected by a virus the calculated time to replicate it is approximately
A. 12 hours
B. 10 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 4 hours
MCQ 7: The process of viruses or viral vectors in combination with foreign viral envelope producing proteins
known as
A. genotyping
B. Pseudotyping
C. phenotyping
D. exchange
MCQ 8: The inability to replicate in certain viruses providing an ultimate advantage in the
A. Gene therapy
B. Drug therapy
C. Physiotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
MCQ 9: A sudden change in the sequence of DNA or RNA is called
A. Change
B. Alteration
C. Mutation
D. Transduction
MCQ 10: During the process of complementation, the helping virus mediate the replication in the
A. Prion
B. Virion
C. Viroid
D. Defective virus
MCQ 11: The viral DNA replicates in
A. Cytoplasm
B. Vacuole
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
MCQ 12: The retrovirus and influenza virus replicates in
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleases
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
MCQ 13: The transcription of RNA to double-stranded DNA is catalyzed by the enzyme
A. Polymerase
B. Transcriptase
C. Reverse Transcriptase
D. Ligase
MCQ 14: The example of a single-stranded RNA virus with negative polarity is
A. Myxovirus
B. Parvoviruses
C. Poxvirus
D. Poliovirus
MCQ 15: Parvoviruses composed of
A. double-stranded Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
C. single-stranded Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
D. double-stranded RNA
MCQ 16: In the viral gene expression, the first step is the synthesis of
A. Messenger Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
B. Transfer Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
C. Ribosomal Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
D. Proteins
MCQ 17: The replicative cycle of most of the viruses is completed in
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleases
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
MCQ 18: The site of attachment for HIV is
A. Acetylcholine receptor
B. CD4 proteins on T lymphocytes
C. Fibroblast receptor
D. Wall receptor
MCQ 19: A particular family of viruses that is diploid known as
A. Reovirus
B. Retrovirus
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D. Poliovirus
MCQ 20: The process by which virus transfer the gene from one cell to another called
A. Replication
B. Transfer
C. Translation
D. Transduction
MCQ 21: Site of attachment of the rabies virus is
A. Acetylcholine receptor
B. CD4 proteins on T lymphocytes
C. Fibroblast receptor
D. Wall receptor
MCQ 22: When the exchange of segment between the viruses having segmented genome the process is known
as
A. Recombination
B. Transfer
C. Translation
D. Reassortment
MCQ 23: In the therapeutic process, the nucleic acid is delivered in the patient s cell as a drug to recover a dis-
ease the process is known as
A. drug therapy
B. physiotherapy
C. gene therapy
D. chemotherapy
MCQ 24: The first step of the viral replication cycle is
A. Attachment
B. Penetration
C. Uncoating of viral genome
D. Doubling
MCQ 25: The poliovirus have single-stranded RNA of
A. Negative polarity
B. Positive polarity
C. Neutral
D. Bipolar
MCQ 26: The enzymes reverse transcriptase is coded by
A. Gag gene
B. Pol gene
C. Tat gene
D. Vif gene
MCQ 27: All viruses replicate in DNA except
A. Poxviruses
B. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
C. Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
D. Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
MCQ 28: Gag and pol are viral
A. Function unit
B. Nucleocapsid
C. Structural proteins
D. Subunits
MCQ 29: Poxviruses replicate in
A. Vacuole
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondria
MCQ 30: If the viral DNA integrates into the host cell chromosomes with no progeny production the process is
called
A. Lytic cycle
B. Lysogenic cycle
C. Replicative cycle
D. Translational cycle
MCQ 31: If a cell has acquired new character as a result of integrated prophage the process is called as
A. Lytic cycle
B. Lysogenic cycle
C. Lysogenic conversion
D. Replication
MCQ 32: The process one or both viruses infect the cells having mutation and produced the nonfictional pro-
tein called as
A. Recombination
B. Reassortment
C. Complementation
D. Transduction
MCQ 33: Which DNA does not have a double-strand DNA?
A. Poxviruses
B. Parvoviruses
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D. Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
MCQ 34: After completion of a viral replication cycle, the number of progeny in the host cell is approximately
A. 100 virion
B. 200 virion
C. 50 virion
D. 40 virion
Chapter 8
Growth of Bacterial Cells MCQs
MCQ 1: The phase of bacterial growth in which the bacterial parent cell does not divide but the metabolic activ-
ity is vigorous named as
A. Log phase
B. Lag phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
MCQ 2: The minimum time for doubling of E. Coli generation is approximately
A. I hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 20 minutes
MCQ 3: Mycobacterium tuberculosis doubles their generation in a calculated time interval of
A. 20 hours
B. 20 minutes
C. 24 hours
D. 36 hours
MCQ 4: In bacterial growth, the growth rate slowed down due to toxic products or depletion of nutrients the re-
sulting phase is known as
A. Lag phase
B. Log phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
MCQ 5: In the death phase, there is a remarkable decrease in the number of
A. Bacteria
B. Viable bacteria
C. Dividing bacteria
D. Progeny
MCQ 6: The reproduction of bacteria usually undergoes a
A. sexual reproduction
B. binary fission
C. budding
D. asexual reproduction
MCQ 7: Clostridium tetanus is an example of
A. Facultative aerobes
B. Obligate aerobes
C. Obligate anaerobes
D. Aerobes
MCQ 8: In binary fission, the parent cell divides to form
A. 2 progeny cells
B. 4 progeny cells
C. 8 progeny cells
D. 16 progeny cell
MCQ 9: The bacteria that depend on oxygen for their ATP generation is called
A. Facultative aerobes
B. Obligate aerobes
C. Anaerobes
D. Aerobes
Chapter 9
Host Defenses and Laboratory Diagnosis MCQs
MCQ 1: Shigella and Campylobacter are isolated by
A. Urine culture
B. Stool Culture
C. Spinal fluid culture
D. Blood culture
MCQ 2: An important mediator of the pain is
A. Histamine
B. Bradykinin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Chemokines
MCQ 3: If an antibody injects in the human body for the protection against the foreign agent the resulting
immunity is
A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Defense mechanism
D. Drug therapy
MCQ 4: Important phagocytes responses to inflammation included macrophages and
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Histamine
D. Bradykinin
MCQ 5: Neisseria gonorrhoeae Treponema pallidum and chlamydia trachomatis are isolated from the
A. Urine culture
B. Genital tract culture
C. Sputum culture
D. Stool culture
MCQ 6: Staphylococcus aureus is mostly isolated from
A. Urine culture
B. Blood culture
C. Sputum culture
D. Throat culture
MCQ 7: For infection skin and mucous membranes acting as a
A. Chemical barrier
B. Physical barrier
C. Defenses
D. Immunity
MCQ 8: When phagocytes attack the infectious particles for destruction the process is called as
A. Opsonization
B. Defense
C. Destruction
D. Pathogenesis
MCQ 9: When meningitis is suspected the test for diagnosis is carried out known as
A. Spinal fluid culture
B. Stool Culture
C. Urine culture
D. Sputum culture
MCQ 10: A small polypeptide attract the neutrophils and macrophages towards infection site named as
A. Chemokines
B. Gamma cells
C. Phagocytes
D. Prostaglandin
MCQ 11: When tuberculosis and pneumonia is suspected diagnosis is carried out in the laboratory by using
A. Throat culture
B. Blood culture
C. Sputum culture
D. Urine culture
MCQ 12: Beta hemolytic streptococci are primarily detected by the help of
A. Blood culture
B. Throat culture
C. Sputum culture
D. Urine culture
MCQ 13: If the person s defense mechanism produces antibodies against the infection or vaccination the
immunity is termed as
A. Defense mechanism
B. Active immunity
C. Passive immunity
D. Drug therapy
MCQ 14: Urine culture is used when a person is suspected with a disease known as
A. Cystitis
B. Whooping cough
C. Fever
D. Pneumonia
Chapter 10
Normal Flora and Major Pathogens MCQs
MCQ 1: Tularemia is a zoonotic disease that is caused by
A. Francisella tularensis
B. E. coli
C. Brucella specie
D. Yersinia pestis
MCQ 2: The inflammatory disease of the middle ear caused by Moraxella species is known as
A. Deafness
B. Ear disorder
C. Hearing impairment
D. Otitis media
MCQ 3: The causative agent for acne in teenagers is caused by
A. Porphyromonas
B. Propionibacterium acene
C. Pleisomonas
D. Peptococcus
MCQ 4: The wound infection caused by the Pasteurella multocida is associated with the bite of
A. Cat only
B. Dog only
C. fox
D. cat and dog
MCQ 5: Lactobacillus is a human pathogen that is also part of normal flora and found in
A. Colon
B. Mouth
C. Genital Tract of female
D. all of above
MCQ 6: A life-threatening childhood infection characterized by the shocks and purpura is known as
A. Fever
B. Childhood infection
C. Death fever
D. Brazilian purpuric fever
MCQ 7: Anthrax is a disease caused by Bacillus anthracis that is common in most animals but rare in
A. Birds
B. Human
C. Algae
D. Fungi
MCQ 8: A sexually transmitted disease that is characterized by the destruction of bones and soft tissues, as
well as genital ulceration, is known as
A. Ulcer
B. Cancer
C. Granuloma inguinale
D. Osteoporosis
MCQ 9: In premature infants, the sepsis and meningitis is caused by
A. Chryseobavterium meningosepticum
B. Ehrlichia equi
C. Citrobacter
D. Chromobacter
MCQ 10: Gardnerella vaginalis is the specie that is located in
A. Vagina
B. Urethera
C. Urinary tract
D. Uterus
MCQ 11: Gram-negative rods that do not ferment lactose is
A. Bacillus
B. Bacillus sabtlis
C. Salmonella
D. Klebsilla
MCQ 12: Chlamydiae are obligate organisms that can grow only within the cell and hence are
A. Intracellular
B. Exogenic
C. Endogenic
D. Environmental lovers
MCQ 13: The cardio bacterium is the member of human normal flora and is found in
A. Colon
B. Mouth
C. Anal canal
D. Genital organ
MCQ 14: In Q fever the word Q is used to denote
A. Question
B. Query
C. Quotation
D. Quality
MCQ 15: The common name for the tetanus is
A. Headache
B. Fever
C. Locked jaw
D. scurvy
MCQ 16: Gram-negative human pathogens include N. gonorrhea and
A. Diplococcus
B. E. coli
C. N. meningitis
D. S. aureus
MCQ 17: A rare disease called rickettsialpox caused by R. Akari found in densely populated areas of
A. India
B. England
C. United states of America
D. China
MCQ 18: In the category of the minor pathogen, a specie that is found in faces of chickens and other domestic
animals is named as
A. Acintobacter
B. Actinobacillus
C. Arizona
D. Aeromonas
MCQ 19: The inflammatory disease of pelvic is caused by
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma hominis
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Mycolasma
MCQ 20: Actinomycetes are long chain-forming bacteria that resembles in structure with
A. hyphae of fungi
B. algae
C. gymnosperm
D. angiosperm
MCQ 21: If an anaerobic gram-positive coccus occurs in a group of four or eight the resulting arrangement is
known as
A. Tetard
B. sarcina
C. diplococcus
D. streptococcus
MCQ 22: The animal sources for the Brucella includes cattle goats sheep and
A. pigs
B. chickens
C. fowl
D. reptiles
MCQ 23: A disease characterized by prolonged weight loss polyarthritis and diarrhea is known as
A. Syphilis
B. Urinogenital tract
C. Whipple s disease
D. Arthritis
MCQ 24: PPD stands for
A. Purified peptides derivatives
B. Purified proteins
C. Purified protein derivatives
D. Purified lipid derivatives
MCQ 25: Shigellosis is a disease found particularly in
A. Pigs
B. Rats
C. Human
D. Goats
MCQ 26: The portal of entry for H. influenza is
A. Genital tract
B. Upper respiratory tract
C. Skin
D. Mouth
MCQ 27: M. Bovis is also a causative agent for Tuberculosis in human and is transmitted by
A. Cow’s milk
B. Goat’s milk
C. Camel’s milk
D. Poultry
MCQ 28: The drug of choice for the Tularemia is
A. Streptomycin
B. Pencillin G
C. Cephalosporins
D. Beta lactam
MCQ 29: M. fortuitum-chelonian is a mycobacterium that rarely causes disease in
A. Pigs
B. Goats
C. Rats
D. Human
MCQ 30: An inflammation caused by the Y. enteroclolitica in the mesenteric lymph nodes in the abdomen
named as
A. Enterocolititis
B. Mesentric adentitis
C. Anorexia
D. Inflammation
MCQ 31: The rat fever is also known as
A. Sodoku
B. Gastritis
C. ulcers
D. Angina
MCQ 32: Nontuberculous mycobacteria are those that do not infect lungs and are also called as
A. Atypical bacteria
B. Non disease causing
C. Facultative bacteria
D. Neutral bacteria
MCQ 33: The natural reservoir for the M. tuberculosis is
A. pigs
B. goats
C. human
D. cattle’s
MCQ 34: A typical mycobacterium produces yellow-orange pigmented colonies exposed to UV rays named as
A. Photochromogens
B. Scotochromogens
C. Non chromogens
D. Rapidly growing mycobacterium
MCQ 35: Spirochetes have a distinctive quality that they are
A. Rigid
B. Motile
C. Flexible
D. Coccobacillus
MCQ 36: A human pathogen that causes abscesses of tonsils sinuses and brain in mixed anaerobic infection is
known as
A. Veillonella parvula
B. Wolbachia
C. Treponema
D. Eikenella
MCQ 37: M. fortuitum-chelonian is a
A. Parasite
B. Saprophyte
C. Autotroph
D. Herbivorous
MCQ 38: Inflammation of the digestive tract due to infections by bacterial pathogen Y. enterovolitica is called as
A. Anorexia
B. Lack of apatite
C. Enterocolitis
D. Inflammation
MCQ 39: E. coli can ferment
A. Maltose
B. Sucrose
C. Lactose
D. Galactose
MCQ 40: Lactobacillus species are present in the adult women’s
A. Mouth
B. Breast
C. Skin
D. Vagina
MCQ 41: A pore-forming toxin that especially damages the white blood cells are known as
A. P-V leukocidin
B. Exfoliatin
C. Enterotoxins
D. Exotoxin
MCQ 42: An opportunistic pathogen that causes pneumonia and sepsis in humans associated with hospitals
known as
A. Granuloma
B. Alcalligenes
C. Compylobacter
D. Chromobacter
MCQ 43: Arizona is a pathogen that belongs to a family called
A. Enteriobacteriaceae
B. Fungi
C. Algae
D. Angiosperm
MCQ 44: The portal of entry for clostridium tetani is
A. Nose
B. Wound
C. Lesions
D. Mouth
MCQ 45: Replacing fever is caused by
A. B. burgdorferi
B. B. recurrentis
C. T. pallidum
D. L. interrogans
MCQ 46: The most common example of spirochetes are
A. Treponema
B. Borrelia
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Mycolasma
MCQ 47: Mycoplasmas are free-living and small organisms having a size approximately
A. 0.5 µm
B. 0.4 µm
C. 0.3 µm
D. 0.2 µm
MCQ 48: Mycoplasma form colonies that resemble in shape with
A. Fungi
B. Fried egg
C. Bread
D. Cream
MCQ 49: The habitat for the Actinomycetes israelii is
A. Anal canal
B. Genital tract
C. Oral cavity
D. Skin
MCQ 50: The causative agent for the Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis is
A. E. chaffeensis
B. Ehrlichia equi
C. Citrobacter
D. E.Coli
MCQ 51: The causative agent for the neonatal meningitis is
A. E.coli
B. Shigella
C. Klebsilla
D. Proteus
MCQ 52: Example of Actinomycetes is a normal flora of the oral cavity known as
A. Actinomycetes israelii
B. Nocardia asteroids
C. Fungi
D. Hyphae
MCQ 53: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the Bacillus that infects approximately world s
A. One third population
B. Half population
C. One forth population
D. Whole population
MCQ 54: Gangrene is caused by
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
MCQ 55: Spirochetes are flexible thin-walled
A. Spiral rods
B. Comma shaped cocci
C. Cocci
D. none of others
MCQ 56: The golden color of the S. aureus is due to the pigment named as
A. Chloroplast
B. Carotenoids
C. Chromoplast
D. Xanthophyll
MCQ 57: M.pneumoniae is the pathogenic mycoplasma particularly for
A. Pigs
B. Rats
C. Cats
D. Human
MCQ 58: Acinetobacter was previously named as
A. Herellea only
B. Mina only
C. streptococcus
D. Herella and Mina
MCQ 59: The drug used for the gonococcal infection is
A. Pencillin G
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Streptogramins
D. Vancomycin
MCQ 60: Ehrlichia equi is also known as
A. E. chaffeensis
B. E. coli
C. Citrobacter
D. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
MCQ 61: The main site for the S. aureus colonization is
A. Skin
B. Nose
C. Mucous
D. Eye
MCQ 62: Human diseases acquired by the animals are known as
A. Infections
B. Syndrome
C. Zoonosis
D. Disorders
MCQ 63: A large loosely coiled spirochete that causes lymph disease is known as
A. B. burgdorferi
B. B. recurrentis
C. T. pallidum
D. L. interrogans
MCQ 64: Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes are two medically important genera of gram-
positive cocci known as
A. Fermenter
B. Human pathogens
C. Rods
D. Spirochete
MCQ 65: Which symbol is used in an unknown causative agent?
A. P
B. R
C. Q
D. S
MCQ 66: Actinomycetes are known as
A. Fungi
B. Algae
C. True bacteria
D. Eubacteria
MCQ 67: According to the rate of growth, the atypical bacteria are classified into
A. 3 classes
B. 5 classes
C. 4 classes
D. 2 classes
MCQ 68: For M. tuberculosis the initial site for the infection is
A. Skin
B. Lungs
C. Mucous
D. Nucleic acid
MCQ 69: A pathogen and pleomorphic is known as
A. Bartonella henselae
B. Bacillus sabtilis
C. S. aureus
D. Treponema
MCQ 70: Klebsilla is residing in
A. Gut of human
B. Colon of human
C. Nose of humans
D. Eyes of humans
MCQ 71: Endocarditis is the infection caused by the
A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B. Achromobacter
C. Actinobacillus
D. Acintobacter
MCQ 72: A gram variable a facultative rod that is the causative agent for bacterial vaginosis is named as
A. Gardnerella vaginalis
B. Fusobacterium
C. Eubacteria
D. Eikenella
MCQ 73: Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans is found in
A. Soil
B. Water
C. Normal flora
D. Mud
MCQ 74: The main site for infection for M. leprae is skin and
A. Mucous
B. Membrane
C. Nucleic acid
D. Nerves
MCQ 75: Birds are the host for
A. C. pneumoniae
B. C. trachomatis
C. C. psittaci
D. Chlamydia
MCQ 76: What is the most distinguishing feature of the mycoplasma?
A. Wall less
B. Saprophyte
C. Marine
D. Ozone layer habitat
MCQ 77: Anatomic location for clostridium species is
A. Mouth
B. Colon
C. Urinary tract
D. Skin
MCQ 78: The term endocarditis refers to as
A. Damaged lungs
B. Damaged heart valve
C. Damaged skin
D. Damaged mucous
MCQ 79: Brucella enters the human body either by the ingestion of contaminated milk or through
A. Skin
B. Eyes
C. Mucous
D. Nose
MCQ 80: The mode of transmission for the Yersinia pestis is
A. Rodent bite
B. Dog’s bite
C. Cat’s stretch
D. Flea’s bite
MCQ 81: Reticuloendothelial system of humans includes bone marrow spleen liver and
A. Joints
B. Synovial fluid
C. Mucous
D. Lymph nodes
MCQ 82: The natural host for the Chlamydiae trachomatis is
A. Pigs
B. Human
C. Rats
D. Cats
MCQ 83: Veillonella is the part of normal flora in human and is found in colon mouth and
A. Skin
B. Eyes
C. Vagina
D. Anus
MCQ 84: Leprosy is caused by
A. Mycobacterium
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Yersinia pestis
MCQ 85: Arachnia species are primarily found in tonsillar crypt and
A. nose
B. eyes
C. skin
D. mouth
MCQ 86: Atypical mycobacterium that can produce colonies in the dark are named as
A. Photochromogens
B. Scotochromogens
C. Non chromogens
D. Rapidly growing mycobacterium
MCQ 87: The only bacteria that are acid-fast Bacillus is
A. Yersinia specie
B. Mycobacteria
C. Brucella specie
D. Francisella tularensis
MCQ 88: The Actinomycetes that causes abscesses in the brain and kidney in immunodeficient patients are
A. Actinomycetes israelii
B. Nocardia asteroids
C. M. marinum
D. M. leprae
MCQ 89: A gram-negative rod known as K. kingae is part of human normal flora and is found in
A. Colon
B. Anal canal
C. Oropharynx
D. Vagina
MCQ 90: Only humans are infected by H. influenzae and they have no
A. Animal reservoir
B. Capsule
C. Antigen
D. Serotype
MCQ 91: Fish tank granuloma is a disease that is caused by
A. M. kanasii
B. M. tuberculosis
C. M. marinum
D. M. leprae
MCQ 92: The rat-bite fever is caused by
A. Spirillum minor
B. Streptobacillus moniliformis
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
D. Eikenella
MCQ 93: N. gonorrhea enters the body through
A. Respiratory tract
B. Genital tract
C. Nose of humans
D. Eyes of humans
MCQ 94: A disease caused by the Brucella species named as brucellosis is also named as
A. Fever
B. Undulant Fever
C. Haemorrhagic fever
D. Cold fever
MCQ 95: Coxiella burnetii is found everywhere in the world except
A. South Africa
B. Bangladesh
C. New Zealand
D. England
MCQ 96: A sexually transmitted disease develops chancre on the genitals organs of women and characterized
by pain during intercourse and urination known as
A. Chancroid
B. Ulcer
C. Lymph nodes
D. Lymphoma
MCQ 97: A virus bacteria or any other microorganism that can cause the disease is called
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Pathogens
D. Microbes
MCQ 98: The gram-positive rod that causes food poisoning is called
A. Bacillus cerus
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Bacillus sabtlis
D. Bacillus
MCQ 99: Proteus spp are present in
A. mouth
B. skin
C. colon
D. vagina
MCQ 100: Lethal factor and edema factors are two exotoxins collectively named as
A. Anthrax toxins
B. Exotoxins
C. Endotoxins
D. Enterotoxins
MCQ 101: Q fever was first described in
A. 1923
B. 1935
C. 1944
D. 1983
MCQ 102: Plasmids that encode the beta-lactamase have a specialty of around about 90 percent of
A. S. aureus
B. S. pyogene
C. Bacilli
D. Diplococcus
MCQ 103: Achromobacter are mostly
A. Epidemic pathogens
B. Opportunists pathogens
C. Endemic pathogens
D. Viral pathogens
MCQ 104: A pathogen that produces a purple color pigment is named as
A. Chromobacterium
B. Cardiobacterium
C. Citrobacter
D. Edwardsiella
MCQ 105: M. tuberculosis multiplies and survives within a cellular vacuole named as
A. Food vacuole
B. Phagosomes
C. Phagocytes
D. Osteocytes
MCQ 106: M. tuberculosis is transmitted from person to person through
A. Intimate contact
B. Respiratory aerosol
C. Faecal discharge
D. Touch
MCQ 107: Food poisoning caused by S. aureus is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea and vomiting due to a
toxin named as
A. Exotoxins
B. Endotoxins
C. Enterotoxins
D. Foreign bodies
MCQ 108: For the meningococcal infection, the drug of choice is
A. Pencillin
B. Pencillin G
C. Cephalosporins
D. Beta lactam
MCQ 109: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an
A. Aerobe
B. Obligate aerobe
C. Obligate anaerobe
D. Anaerobe
MCQ 110: Q fever is caused by an obligate intracellular organism named as
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C. Rickettsia akari
D. Rickettsia rickettsial
MCQ 111: The scientific study to test the blood serum is known as
A. Diagnosis
B. Analysis
C. Serology
D. Blood culture
MCQ 112: Genus chryseobacterium is also known as
A. Eikenella
B. Citrobacter
C. Edwardsiella
D. Flavobacterium
MCQ 113: A medical condition lack of appetite for food is a major symptom known as
A. Anorexia
B. Malaise
C. Stomach problem
D. Ulcer
MCQ 114: The penicillinase-producing strain is isolated from the patients that exhibit high-level resistance in
A. 1973
B. 1967
C. 1976
D. 1984
MCQ 115: The ant phagocytic capsule of Bacillus anthracis composed of
A. D-glutamate
B. Polypeptide
C. Peptide
D. Carbohydrates
MCQ 116: The portal of entry for the Bacillus cereus is
A. Genital tract
B. Respiratory tract
C. Mouth
D. Nose
MCQ 117: Brazilian purpuric fever is caused by
A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Haemophilus pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus aegyptius
D. H. pylori
MCQ 118: Treponema pallidum is transmitted by the
A. Intimate contact
B. Blood transfusion
C. Respiratory aerosol
D. Gastrointestinal tract
MCQ 119: Viridians streptococci are residing in human mouth and
A. Skin
B. Mucosal membrane
C. Nasopharynx
D. Nose
MCQ 120: Trimethoprim-sulfa is the drug of choice for
A. Whipple’s disease
B. Whooping cough
C. Death fever
D. Angina
MCQ 121: Scaled skin syndrome in young children is caused by a toxin called
A. Exfoliatin
B. Endotoxins
C. Enterotoxins
D. P-V leukocidin
MCQ 122: In the human body, the Brucella resides in the
A. Reticuloendothelial system
B. Respiratory tract
C. Genital Tract
D. Gastrointestinal tract
MCQ 123: Nose and skin are the best anatomic location for
A. Bacteroides species
B. Gardnerrella vaginalis
C. Enterococcus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
MCQ 124: E. chaffeensis primarily infect the
A. Red blood cell
B. Serum
C. Mononucleotide leukocytes
D. Plasma
MCQ 125: Enterocolitis is caused by
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Yersinia enterocolitica
D. E.Coli
MCQ 126: Candida Albicans present as normal flora in mouth colon and
A. Vagina
B. Intestine
C. Uterus
D. Skin
MCQ 127: The other name for the plague is
A. Black cough
B. Black fever
C. Whooping cough
D. Black death
MCQ 128: Rat-bitee fever in humans is caused by
A. Spirillum minor only
B. Streptobacillus moniliformis only
C. streptococcus
D. Spirillum minor and Streptobacillus moniliformis
MCQ 129: An alternative name for the Pseudomonas pseudomallei is
A. Pseudomonas
B. H. pylori
C. Buskholderia pseudomallei
D. Flavobacterium
MCQ 130: The strains that are produced from the enterotoxins do not cause
A. Inflammation
B. Dysentery
C. Plague
D. Rash
MCQ 131: Q fever was first described by
A. Robert brown
B. Robert Hook
C. Camel fisher
D. Edward Holbrook Derrick
MCQ 132: The small gram-positive rods called as Brucella lacks
A. Nucleic acid
B. Proteins
C. Chromosomes
D. Capsules
MCQ 133: Mode of transmission for the B. Burgdorferi is
A. Sexual contact
B. Tick bite
C. Parasites
D. Louse bite
MCQ 134: A coccobacillus rod that is found in soil and water is named as
A. Acintobacter
B. Actinobacillus
C. Achromobacter
D. Aeromonas
MCQ 135: A bacterial pathogen gram-negative coccobacillus found in water supplies known as
A. Acintobacter
B. Actinobacillus
C. Achromobacter
D. Aeromonas
MCQ 136: Periodontal infections are caused by the
A. Porphyromonas
B. Peptococcus
C. Moraxella
D. Rhodococcus
MCQ 137: Bacteroides fragillis is a specie of bacteria that is present in the colon of
A. Human
B. Aves
C. Rats
D. Goats
MCQ 138: Erythrasma is caused by
A. Citrobacter
B. Corynebactterium minutissimum
C. Erwinia
D. Ehrlichia
MCQ 139: Enteric fever is caused by
A. Pseudomonas
B. E. coli
C. Salmonella
D. S. aureus
Chapter 11
Parasites MCQs
MCQ 1: The only ciliated protozoan that causes diarrhea in human is
A. Babesia
B. Cyclospora
C. Balantidium
D. Isospora
MCQ 2: The inflammation of the cornea usually occurs in wearing contact lenses the resulting inflammation is
known as
A. keratitis
B. cornea disorder
C. dysentery
D. Diarrhoea
MCQ 3: The mode of transmission for Wuchereria is
A. blackfly bite
B. deer fly bite
C. flees
D. mosquito bite
MCQ 4: The rounded head of the tapeworm is called
A. Proglottids
B. Scolex
C. Neck
D. Joint
MCQ 5: T. rhodesiense is the causative agent for the
A. Sleeping sickness
B. Dysentery
C. Amoebic dysentery
D. T. cruzi
MCQ 6: American trypanosomiasis is also called as
A. Chagas disease
B. Plasmolysis
C. Fever
D. Whooping cough
MCQ 7: The mode of transmission for Babesia is
A. Ades mosquito
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Ixodes dammini
D. Mites
MCQ 8: The deer fly bite is the mode of transmission for
A. Wuchereria
B. Onchocerca
C. Loa
D. Ancylostoma
MCQ 9: The mode of transmission for T. rhodesiense is
A. Sand-fly
B. Bugs
C. Tsetse fly
D. Reduviid bug
MCQ 10: Crab is the intermediate host for the
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. clonorchis sinensis
D. Paragonimus westermani
MCQ 11: The sexual cycle for the plasmodium is
A. Sporogony
B. Gametogony
C. Sporangium
D. Spongiform
MCQ 12: Toxoplasmosis is caused by
A. T. tropic
B. T. cruzi
C. T. gondii
D. L. tropica
MCQ 13: The intermediate host for the Taenia solium is
A. Cattles
B. Pigs
C. Sheep
D. Fish
MCQ 14: Visceral Leishmania is caused by
A. T. tropic
B. Leishmania donovani
C. Leishmania tropica
D. Leishmania mexicana
MCQ 15: The disease caused by the Taenia solium is called
A. Cysticercosis
B. Taeniasis
C. Phyllobothrium
D. Dysentery
MCQ 16: Dracunculus is the causative agent for the
A. Pinworm
B. Hookworm
C. Guinea worm
D. Anisakiasis
MCQ 17: The fungus that affects the intestines in human is known as
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Echinococcus granulosis
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
MCQ 18: Chagas disease is caused by
A. T. tropic
B. T. cruzi
C. T. rhodesiense
D. L. tropica
MCQ 19: In the mode of transmission for Schistosoma mansoni, the penetration is in
A. Mucous
B. Intestine
C. Skin
D. Blood
MCQ 20: Fish is the intermediate host for the
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. clonorchis sinensis
D. Paragonimus westermani
MCQ 21: The amoebic dysentery is caused by
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. T. tropica
D. T. cruzi
MCQ 22: Whipworm is caused by
A. Ascaris
B. Trichuris
C. Hookworm
D. Trichinosis
MCQ 23: P. falciparum is transmitted by
A. Ades mosquito
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Bugs
D. Cats
MCQ 24: Amoebic dysentery is prevalent among
A. Females
B. Males
C. Female homosexuals
D. Male homosexuals
MCQ 25: Fish is the intermediate host for the
A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Echinococcus granulosis
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
MCQ 26: Pinworm is caused by
A. Enterobius
B. Ascaris
C. Trichinella
D. Anisakis
MCQ 27: The intermediate host for the Schistosoma japonicum is
A. Sheep
B. Snail
C. Tapeworm
D. Ascaris
MCQ 28: The intermediate host for the Echinococcus granulosus is
A. Cattles
B. Pigs
C. Sheep
D. Fish
MCQ 29: The vector for the Chagas disease is
A. Reduviid bugs
B. Bugs
C. Mosquitoes
D. Flees
MCQ 30: The larvae of Taenia solium causes
A. Cysticercosis
B. Taeniasis
C. Phyllobothrium
D. Dysentery
MCQ 31: The study of parasites is known as
A. Virology
B. Parasitology
C. Bacteriology
D. Biology
Chapter 12
Pathogenesis MCQs
MCQ 1: Diarrhea in infants is caused by
A. Retrovirus
B. Rotavirus
C. Reovirus
D. Adenovirus
MCQ 2: The quantitative measurement of pathogenicity is termed as
A. Infectious measurement
B. Disease measurement
C. Virulent factor
D. Virulence
MCQ 3: The transmission of pathogens during pregnancy from mother to child is called
A. Direct transmission
B. Horizontal transmission
C. Vertical transmission
D. Indirect transmission
MCQ 4: HIV is transmitted within the
A. Mouth
B. Birth canal
C. Skin
D. Colon
MCQ 5: The reservoir for the avian influenza virus is
A. Chickens only
B. Fowls only
C. Sparrows
D. Chickens and Fowls
MCQ 6: Person to person transmission of pathogens is termed as
A. Horizontal transmission
B. Vertical transmission
C. Cylindrical transmission
D. lateral transmission
MCQ 7: Cytomegalovirus is a pathogen that is transferred through
A. Breast feeding
B. Water
C. Air
D. Soil
MCQ 8: Cat bite is the mode of transmission for
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Salmonella enteritidis
D. E.coli
MCQ 9: Treponema pallidum is transmitted via transplacental mode and is the causative agent for
A. Hydrops fetalis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Congenital syphilis
D. Thrush
MCQ 10: Entry portal for the influenza virus is
A. skin
B. respiratory tract
C. gastrointestinal tract
D. mouth
MCQ 11: Meningoencephalitis is a disease caused by
A. neisseria
B. candida albicans
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. tetani
MCQ 12: Portal of entry for Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
A. Nose
B. Skin
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Respiratory
MCQ 13: Tuberculosis is caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis that enters the body via
A. Respiratory tract
B. Skin
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Mucosa
MCQ 14: Bronchiolitis is a disease caused by the virus
A. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Rotavirus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Papilloma virus
MCQ 15: The reservoir for the rat fleas known to be a
A. Bat
B. Rat
C. Human
D. Pig
MCQ 16: After a viral infection, the humans and other animals produce a heterogeneous group of glycoproteins
named as
A. Killer cells
B. Interferons
C. Alpha and beta cells
D. Lymphocytes
MCQ 17: Gonorrhea is a disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhea may get an entry in the body through
A. Genital tract
B. Respiratory tract
C. Gastrointestinal tract
D. Urinary tract
MCQ 18: A type of phagocytes that are responsible for the detection destroying and engulfing the pathogens are
named as
A. Phages
B. Bacteriophages
C. Micophages
D. Macrophages
MCQ 19: Mode of transmission of the cytomegalovirus is
A. food
B. milk
C. monkeys
D. breast feeding
MCQ 20: Bacterial toxins that are lipopolysaccharides in nature and are an integral part of the bacterial cell wall
are called
A. Exotoxins
B. Toxin
C. Endotoxins
D. Ectotoxin
MCQ 21: The cells that are not specific in action and are a type of white blood cells are known as
A. Defensive cell
B. Natural killing cells
C. Phagocytes
D. Endocytes
MCQ 22: A family of the positively charged peptides that have antiviral activity is named as
A. Beta Defensin
B. Leukocytes
C. Defensin
D. Granulocytes
MCQ 23: Vibrio cholera enter in the body via gastrointestinal tract and causes
A. Cholera
B. Fever
C. Measles
D. Mumps
MCQ 24: The animal reservoir for the Hantaviruses
A. Monkeys
B. Deer
C. Civet cat
D. Fowls
MCQ 25: The pathogens that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised patients are called
A. Infectious pathogens
B. Opportunistic pathogens
C. Virulent pathogens
D. Lethal pathogens
MCQ 26: The portal of entry for rotavirus is
A. Respiratory tract
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Genital tract
D. Mouth
MCQ 27: Water is the portal of entry for leptospira inter organs that causes
A. Leptopirosis
B. Human immunodeficiency viruses (HIV)
C. Acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS)
D. Leprosy
MCQ 28: What is the size of lambda bacteriophage?
A. 300 nm
B. 200 nm
C. 400 nm
D. 100 nm
MCQ 29: Polymorphonuclear leukocytes as the name indicate show the variable shape of
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosomes
MCQ 30: A microorganism can cause a disease called
A. Disease causing
B. Detrimental
C. Pathogens
D. Virulence
MCQ 31: Tularemia is a disease transmitted using
A. Bees
B. Flies
C. Ticks
D. Mites
MCQ 32: Tetanus is transmitted through
A. Water
B. Soil
C. Air
D. Sneezing
MCQ 33: Adenovirus is involved in causing
A. Fever
B. Typhoid
C. Pneumonia
D. Rabies
MCQ 34: The alternative name for the polymorphonuclear leukocytes is
A. Leukocytes
B. Erthyrocytes
C. Granulocytes
D. Phages
MCQ 35: Polypeptides that are secreted by the bacterial cell and released outside called
A. Endotoxins
B. Exotoxins
C. Toxins
D. Virulent factors
MCQ 36: Interferons stop the growth of the viruses by blocking the translation of viral
A. Proteins
B. Capsids
C. Capsomere
D. Glycoproteins
MCQ 37: Wild birds are the reservoir for the
A. Dengue virus
B. Avian influenza virus
C. Encephalitis viruses
D. Rabies virus
MCQ 38: leukemia is caused by
A. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
B. Human T cell lymphotrophic virus
C. Hepatitis Delta Virus (HDV)
D. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
MCQ 39: Which is not included in the portal of entry of skin?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Rabies virus
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Poliovirus
MCQ 40: If an infection has a worldwide distribution it is termed as
A. epidemic
B. latent
C. pandemic
D. endemic
MCQ 41: Reservoir for the mycobacterium bovis is
A. ticks
B. goats
C. cows
D. cattle’s
MCQ 42: The presence of a new organism that is not causing any symptom and is not a member of the normal
flora known as
A. Colonizations
B. Local population
C. Neutral species
D. Normal specie
MCQ 43: Warts in human are caused by the virus
A. Adenovirus
B. Arenavirus
C. Papillomavirus
D. Rubella virus
MCQ 44: Chickenpox is the disease caused by
A. Rotavirus
B. Rubella virus
C. Varicella-zoster virus
D. Hantavirus
MCQ 45: Rhinovirus is a causative agent for the common cold that enters the human body through
A. Gastrointestinal tract
B. Skin
C. Mouth
D. Respiratory tract
MCQ 46: Water is the mode of transmission for
A. Tetanus
B. Legionnaire s disease
C. Cat-scratch fever
D. Lyme diseases
MCQ 47: Civet cat is a reservoir for the
A. Coronavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Rubella virus
D. Rabies virus
MCQ 48: Breast milk is a mode of transmission for
A. Human T-cell leukaemia virus
B. E.coli
C. Treponema
D. Parvovirus
MCQ 49: AIDS stands for
A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C. Acquired infection disorders
D. Death fever
MCQ 50: APOBEC3G refers to
A. Apolipoprotein B ribonucleic acid-Editing Enzyme
B. Alpha Defensin
C. Beta Defensin
D. White blood cells
MCQ 51: Genital tract is a portal of entry for
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Candida albicans
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. all of above
MCQ 52: Papillomavirus enters the body through
A. mouth
B. skin
C. nose
D. eye
MCQ 53: The fever may inhibit the process of replication in
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Algae
MCQ 54: The reservoir for the rabies virus is
A. Shrunk
B. Raccoons
C. Bats
D. all of above
MCQ 55: A constantly consistent infection in a specific population at a low level is termed as
A. Endemic
B. Epidemic
C. Pandemic
D. Worldwide
MCQ 56: Gonorrhea is a disease that is transmitted from person to person mainly transmitted through
A. Hand shake
B. Kissing
C. Intimate contact
D. Hugging
MCQ 57: AIDS is caused by which one?
A. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
B. Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
C. Hepatitis C Virus (HCV)
D. Hepatitis A Virus (HAV)
MCQ 58: The reservoir for the dengue virus is
A. Deers
B. Monkeys
C. Bats
D. Fowls
MCQ 59: Parvovirus B19 is a bacteria follow the transplacental mode of transmission causes a disease named
as
A. Hydrops fetalis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Syphilis
D. Thrush
MCQ 60: The portal of entry for HIV is
A. skin
B. mouth
C. blood
D. nose
MCQ 61: Sepsis is transmitted by
A. seafood
B. meat
C. milk
D. breast feeding
MCQ 62: The portal of entry for the rubella virus is
A. Respiratory tract
B. Urinary tract
C. Genital organs
D. Nose
MCQ 63: Bacillus cereus is a human pathogen that is transmitted due to
A. Cooked meat
B. Reheated rice
C. Seafood
D. Milk
MCQ 64: Diseases caused by the bacteria follow two major mechanisms namely toxin productions and
A. inflammation only
B. Invasion only
C. infection
D. inflammation and invasion
MCQ 65: Candida Albicans enters the body through
A. Skin
B. Genital tract
C. Respiratory tract
D. Mouth
Chapter 13
Sterilization and Disinfectants MCQs
MCQ 1: The pore size of nitrocellulose is
A. 0.23 µm
B. 0.22 µm
C. 0.21 µm
D. 0.26 µm
MCQ 2: The temperature range for pasteurization is
A. 60 °C-70 °C
B. 62 °C-72 °C
C. 65 °C-75 °C
D. 121 °C-130 °C
MCQ 3: Removal and killing of all microorganisms is known as
A. destruction
B. sterilization
C. pasteurization
D. removal
MCQ 4: The filters that are commonly used known as
A. nitrocellulose
B. filtration tubes
C. sieves
D. filter paper
MCQ 5: Sterilization is done by autoclave consisting of exposure to stream about
A. 120 °C
B. 170 °C
C. 121 °C
D. 116 °C
MCQ 6: The time duration for the pasteurization is
A. 30 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 11 minutes
MCQ 7: During pasteurization, the milk is heated for 30 minutes at
A. 97 °C
B. 83 °C
C. 72 °C
D. 61 °C
MCQ 8: In hospitals, the surgical instruments and plastics are washed with
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Iodine
C. Tincture
D. Chlorine
MCQ 9: For the purification of swimming pools and water supplies of chemical used is
A. Alcohol
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Heavy metals
MCQ 10: The temperature required for the sterilization with dry heat is
A. 180 °C
B. 183 °C
C. 189 °C
D. 190 °C
MCQ 11: The method which is used primarily for the purification of milk is called
A. Sterilization
B. Autoclaving
C. Pasteurization
D. Ethanol
MCQ 12: A chemical used for the removal of microorganisms from the mucous membrane and skin called
A. Detergents
B. Alcohol
C. Pesticides
D. Antiseptics
MCQ 13: The process of killing or removal of microorganism is known as
A. Sterilization
B. Pasteurization
C. Disinfectant
D. Destruction
MCQ 14: Before the immunization, the skin is cleaned with
A. Detergents
B. Insecticides
C. Alcohol
D. Ethanol
MCQ 15: The method used for the sterilization of solutions is called
A. Sterilization
B. Autoclaving
C. Filtration
D. Radiations
MCQ 16: Contact lenses and wounds are cleaned by an antiseptic named as
A. Iodine
B. Tincture
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Chlorine
Chapter 14
Structure of Bacterial Cells MCQs
MCQ 1: Bacilli are the term used for
A. Round bacteria
B. Spiral bacteria
C. Rod shaped bacteria
D. Cluster shaped bacteria
MCQ 2: A polysaccharide that helps the bacteria in adherence to the surface is named as
A. Granule
B. Glycocalyx
C. Mesosome
D. Nucleoid
MCQ 3: The flagellum is made up of
A. Sugars
B. Lipids
C. Polysaccharides
D. Proteins
MCQ 4: The gap between the outer membrane and plasma membrane is named as
A. Mesoderm
B. Metaderm
C. Plasma
D. Periplasma
MCQ 5: The circular double-stranded and extrachromosomal DNA can replicate independently of the bacterial
chromosome called
A. Plasmid
B. Cosmic
C. Vector
D. Template
MCQ 6: What is the approximate number of genes in humans in contrast to prokaryotes?
A. 100000
B. 1000000
C. 10000
D. 200000
MCQ 7: Pleomorphic is the term used particularly for bacteria having
A. One shape
B. Rods
C. Spirals
D. Variable shape
MCQ 8: In many clinical laboratories, the swelling phenomena help in identification of the certain organism
named as
A. Quelling reaction
B. Swelling
C. Identification
D. Pathology
MCQ 9: A piece of DNA having the ability to move from one site to another either between the DNA s of plas-
mids bacterias bacteriophages or within the DNA molecule is called
A. Vector
B. Transposons
C. Plasmid
D. Template
MCQ 10: The site for the nutrients in the cytoplasm is
A. Vacuole
B. Food vacuole
C. Granules
D. Cytosol
MCQ 11: Peptidoglycan is the essential sugar present in the bacterial
A. Cytoplasm
B. Cell wall
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleus
MCQ 12: The size of the bacteria ranges from
A. 0.2-5 µm
B. 0.3-4 µm
C. 0.02-0.2 µm
D. 0.2-0.4 µm
MCQ 13: The flagellum is the bacteria is the part that helps in
A. Digestion
B. Movement
C. Respiration
D. Selection
MCQ 14: The toxin produced by some bacterial species that is lethal to other bacterias is named as
A. Bacteriocins
B. Bacterial toxin
C. Poison
D. Lethal secretion
MCQ 15: The process of formation of spores in certain bacterias is termed as
A. Sporulation
B. Spore formation
C. Resistant structure formation
D. Capsules
MCQ 16: Endotoxin is present in the outer membrane of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria known as
A. Polysaccharides
B. Lipopolysaccharides
C. Sugars
D. Lipid
MCQ 17: The approximate number of gene in the prokaryotic DNA is
A. 200
B. 2000
C. 2500
D. 2100
MCQ 18: Based on shape bacterias are classified into
A. 2 Groups
B. 3 Groups
C. 4 Groups
D. 5 Groups
MCQ 19: The circular DNA present in the prokaryotes has the molecular weight
A. 2 x 10⁷
B. 2 x 10⁸
C. 2 x 10¹⁰
D. 2 x 10⁹
MCQ 20: In the human tissues, the adherence of bacteria ultimately causes infection to the humans is medi-
ated by the
A. Cell wall
B. Sugars
C. Capsule
D. Flagella
MCQ 21: The attachment of the staphylococci to the mucosal cells is mediated by
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Teichoic acid
C. Polysaccharides
D. Lipopolysaccharides
MCQ 22: β lactamase is the enzyme that is present in
A. Cytoplasm
B. Cytosol
C. Ribosome
D. Periplasma
Chapter 15
Structure of Viruses MCQs
MCQ 1: The outer viral proteins also act as
A. Antibody
B. Receptor
C. Antigen
D. Coat
MCQ 2: In the virion structure, the regulatory protein is present which is known as
A. Tegument
B. Cell membrane
C. Antigen
D. Coat
MCQ 3: The DNA present in the viruses having
A. A single molecule
B. Double molecule
C. Several molecules
D. Clusters
MCQ 4: The envelope of the virus a lipoprotein membrane composed of derivatives of the lipid from host cell
membrane and protein known to be a
A. Virus-specific
B. Host specific
C. Neutral
D. Capsid
MCQ 5: Infectious particles that composed solely of proteins is known as
A. Virion
B. Prions
C. Phage
D. Bacteriophages
MCQ 6: The protein coat capsid of the viruses made up of repeated subunits named as
A. Proteins
B. Amino acids
C. Capsomere
D. Nucleotides
MCQ 7: The presence of a solely single molecule of circular DNA is the specialty of the
A. Prion
B. Viroid
C. Bacteriophages
D. Virion
MCQ 8: Hollow coil-like arrangement of the capsomeres that looks like a rod-shaped is known as
A. Helical
B. Icosahedral
C. Spiral
D. Triangular
MCQ 9: The infective and complete form of the virus with core RNA and capsid outside the host cell is called
A. Virion
B. Virus
C. Prion
D. Bacteriophages
MCQ 10: A single glycoprotein that is present in the prion having an approximate molecular weight ranges from
A. 27000-30000
B. 2500-3000
C. 3000-3500
D. 4000-4500
MCQ 11: The nucleic acid of the viruses including
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) only
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) only
C. Amino acids
D. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) and Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
MCQ 12: The virus size is determined by the protein coat named as
A. Cell wall
B. Capsid
C. Capsomere
D. Cell membrane
MCQ 13: Prions are remarkably resistant to formaldehyde and
A. Acids
B. Nucleases
C. Bases
D. Buffers
MCQ 14: All viruses are haploid except
A. Influenza virus
B. Retrovirus
C. Pox viruses
D. Parvovirus
MCQ 15: The missing function of the defective viruses provided by the help of
A. Helper virus
B. Virion
C. Prion
D. Bacteriophages
MCQ 16: Prions are the normal human proteins and they do not cause any
A. Inflammatory response
B. Scratches
C. Harmful response
D. Neutral
MCQ 17: Pseudovirus can infect the cell but cannot
A. Replicate
B. Translate
C. Divided
D. Attach
MCQ 18: The attachment of the receptors and virus known to be
A. random
B. specific
C. irregular
D. regular
MCQ 19: Attachment of the viruses to the receptors and the protection of the genetic material is mediated by
the
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Envelop
D. Capsid
MCQ 20: In sheep, the prions are causative agent for
A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
B. Scrapie
C. Cancer
D. Ulcer
MCQ 21: Which one is not present in Viroid?
A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
B. Ribonucleic Acid (RNA)
C. Envelop
D. Cell membrane
MCQ 22: Which one is not present in Prions?
A. Proteins
B. Capsids
C. Nucleic acids
D. Envelope
MCQ 23: A single copy of genome in all viruses put it into a cell known as
A. Diploid
B. Haploid
C. Polyploid
D. Euploid
MCQ 24: The capsid proteins and nucleic acid genome combines to form
A. Capsid
B. Capsomere
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Nucleic acid
MCQ 25: When the capsomeres are arranged in 20 triangles the resulting structure is called as
A. Helical
B. Icosahedral
C. Spiral
D. Triangular
MCQ 26: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease a human disease caused by
A. virus
B. viroid
C. prion
D. phage
MCQ 27: All the helical viruses are enclosed in nucleocapsid known as
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
C. Envelop
D. Boundary
MCQ 28: The size range of the virus is
A. 20-300 nm
B. 50-300nm
C. 40-300nm
D. 80-350nm
MCQ 29: Viroid cause diseases rarely in humans but mostly in
A. plants
B. animals
C. horses
D. camels
MCQ 30: The viruses that contain the host cell DNA instead of viral DNA is known as
A. Virion
B. Prion
C. Bacteriophages
D. Pseudoviruses
MCQ 31: The defective viruses having proteins and nucleic acid but cannot replicate without
A. Bacteriophage
B. Virion
C. Prion
D. Helper virus
Chapter 16
Vaccines, Antimicrobial and Drugs Mechanism MCQs
MCQ 1: The enzymatic activity of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase is stopped by the action of the drug
named as
A. Dihydropteroate synthetases
B. Transferase
C. Trimethoprim
D. Flucytosine
MCQ 2: A bactericidal drug that inhibits the activity of DNA gyrase ultimately inhibit the synthesis of
A. Bacterial Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
B. Bacterial Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
C. Ribosome
D. Mitochondria
MCQ 3: Staphylococcus epidermis causes an infection that can be treated with
A. Cephalosporin
B. Vancomycin
C. Bacitracin
D. Cycloserine
MCQ 4: A second line drug that is used for the treatment of tuberculosis is called
A. Cycloserine
B. Cephalosporin
C. Monobactams
D. Vancomycin
MCQ 5: The bond between 50s ribosomal subunit and chloramphenicol during the inhibition of protein syn-
thesis is at the active site of the enzyme named as
A. Peptidase
B. Transferase
C. Amylase
D. Lipase
MCQ 6: The passage of antibodies from one person to another is called
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Innate immunity
D. Defense
MCQ 7: Penicillin is a drug destroying the cells if they are in a growing stage so in this way penicillin is known
to be a
A. Bacteriocins
B. bactericidal
C. bacteriostatic
D. bacteria inhibiting
MCQ 8: Monobactams have tremendous activity against the gram-negative rods including
A. Bacillus
B. Diplobacillus
C. Pseudomonas
D. Streptomyces
MCQ 9: A β lactam drug having the same mechanism of action as penicillin known as
A. Cephalosporin
B. Carbapenems
C. Monobactams
D. Vancomycin
MCQ 10: when a standard first-line drug had failed to recover a particular condition a new drug introduced is
classified as
A. First line drugs
B. Drug therapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Second line drug
MCQ 11: For the prevention of N. meningitides and Haemophilus influenza causes meningitis the drug used to
recover is
A. Rifampin
B. Isonazids
C. Pentamidin
D. Penicillin
MCQ 12: The isoniazid can terminate the synthesis of
A. Folic acid
B. Mycolic acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
MCQ 13: Topoisomerases are also known as
A. Amylase
B. Gyrase
C. Ligase
D. Polymerase
MCQ 14: The surgical staphylococcal wound infection is prevented by the drug
A. Rifampin
B. Cefazolin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Erythromycin
MCQ 15: Ergosterol synthesis is terminated by an antifungal drug called as
A. Nystatin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Azoles
D. Flucytosine
MCQ 16: A class of protein functions as antibodies present in cells and serum of the immune system called
A. Myoglobin
B. Immunoglobin
C. Hemeoglobin
D. Globular proteins
MCQ 17: Mycoplasma and Legionella are causative agents for pneumonia that is treated by
A. Streptomycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Amikacin
MCQ 18: Drugs that inhibit the cross-linking step in the synthesis of murine inhibits the activity of the enzyme
known as
A. Trans peptidases
B. Amylase
C. Protease
D. Lipase
MCQ 19: B and T cells are the two types of white blood cells that mediate the
A. Passive immunity
B. Active immunity
C. Resistance
D. Immunity
MCQ 20: The inhibition of protein synthesis by Chloramphenicol is the result of its bonding with
A. 30S ribosomal unit
B. 50S ribosomal unit
C. 60S ribosomal unit
D. 70S ribosomal unit
MCQ 21: A drug that is approved by the government in treating a particular disease is called
A. Drug therapy
B. Chemotherapy
C. First line drug
D. Second line drug
MCQ 22: The capability of an organism to resist a particular toxin or disease by the action of defense mech-
anism is called
A. Resistance
B. Immunity
C. Ability
D. Defense
MCQ 23: Most cephalosporins are products derived from molds of the genus
A. Streptomyces
B. Cephalosporium
C. Actinomycetes
D. Algae
MCQ 24: A glycopeptide that blocks the synthesis of the cell wall by disrupting the activity of transpeptidase is
named as
A. Cephalosporin
B. Vancomycin
C. Monobactams
D. Carbapenems
MCQ 25: The drugs that are the structural analog of Para-aminobenzoic acid included
A. Streptogramins
B. Telithromycin
C. Sulfonamides
D. Linezolid
MCQ 26: The competition of Para-aminobenzoic acid and sulfonamides occupying the active sites of the en-
zyme known as
A. Dihydropteroate synthetase
B. Transferase
C. Lipase
D. Peptidase
MCQ 27: A polyene named as nystatin has
A. Antiviral activity
B. Antibacterial activity
C. Antifungal activity
D. Neutral
MCQ 28: To prevent the pathogens the first-line defense mechanism is called as
A. Adaptive immunity
B. Innate immunity
C. Resistance
D. Defense
MCQ 29: A synthetic substitute synthesized by the causative agent of the disease in treating a variety of dis-
eases known as
A. Drug
B. Antibiotic
C. Antibody
D. Vaccine
MCQ 30: The vaccine used for the treatment of tuberculosis is
A. Measles, Mumps, Rubella Vaccine
B. Bacilli Chalmette Guerin
C. MMR vaccine
D. Bacteriocins
MCQ 31: Plague and brucellosis is the condition that is treated by
A. Streptomycin
B. Vancomycin
C. Isoniazid
D. Linezolid
MCQ 32: Vancomycin is effective against
A. Gram negative bacteria
B. Gram positive bacteria
C. Gram negative rods
D. Gram positive rods
MCQ 33: The agents that used to stop the synthesis of proteins are called
A. Bacteriocins
B. Bactericidal
C. Bacteriostatic
D. Beta lactam
Leave A Comment